Three similar improper integrals

[Grigorios Kostakos]

Evaluate for $n,m\in\mathbb{N}$ the following integrals:

\(\begin{aligned}
1.\quad &\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log^n{x}}{1+x^2}\,{\rm{d}}x\\\\
2.\quad &\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log{x}}{(1+x^2)^m}\,{\rm{d}}x\\\\
3.\quad &\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log^n{x}}{(1+x^2)^m}\,{\rm{d}}x
\end{aligned}\)

[Tolaso J Kos]

$1.\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log^n{x}}{1+x^2}\,{\rm{d}}x$

Well, for the first one for the moment... We have successively:

\begin{align*} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x &= \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x\\ &= \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x - \int_{1}^{0} \frac{\log^n \left ( \frac{1}{x} \right )}{1+ \left ( \frac{1}{x} \right )^2} \frac{1}{x^2} \, {\rm d}x\\ &= \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2} \, {\rm d}x + \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n \left ( \frac{1}{x} \right )}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x\\ &= \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x+ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{(-1)^n \log^n x}{1+x^2} \, {\rm d}x \\ &= \left ( 1+(-1)^n \right ) \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2} \, {\rm d}x\\ &=\left ( 1+(-1)^n \right )\int_{0}^{1} \log^n x \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k x^{2k} \, {\rm d}x \\ &= \left ( 1+(-1)^n \right ) \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} (-1)^k \int_{0}^{1}x^{2k} \log^n x \, {\rm d}x\\ &= \left ( 1+(-1)^n \right )(-1)^n n! \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{\left ( 2k+1 \right )^{n+1}} \\ &= \left ( 1+(-1)^n \right )(-1)^n n! \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \left [ \frac{1}{\left ( 4k+1 \right )^{n+1}} - \frac{1}{\left ( 4k+3 \right )^{n+1}} \right ] \\ &=\left ( 1+(-1)^n \right )(-1)^n n! \frac{1}{4^{n+1}} \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \left [ \frac{1}{\left ( k+ \frac{1}{4} \right )^{n+1}} - \frac{1}{\left ( k+\frac{3}{4} \right )^{n+1}} \right ] \\ &= \frac{1}{4^{n+1}}\left ( 1+(-1)^n \right ) \left [ \psi^{(n)} \left ( \frac{3}{4} \right ) - \psi^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{4} \right )\right ] \end{align*}

Thus, distinguishing cases for $n$ (either it is odd or even) we get the following beautiful closed form:

$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x = \left\{\begin{matrix} 0 &, &n \; {\rm odd} \\\\ \displaystyle \frac{2}{4^{n+1}}\left [ \psi^{(n)} \left ( \frac{3}{4} \right ) - \psi^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{4} \right ) \right ]& ,& n \; {\rm even} \end{matrix}\right.$$

Recalling also that , if $n$ is even:

$$\psi^{(n)}(1-z)-\psi^{(n)} (z)= \pi \; \frac{\mathrm{d}^{n} }{\mathrm{d} x^{n}} \cot \pi z \tag{ polygamma reflection formula}$$

holds, the above formula reduces down to - the not so beautiful -

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{1+x^2}\, {\rm d}x = \left[ \frac{2\pi}{4^{n+1}} \frac{\mathrm{d}^n }{\mathrm{d} x^n} \cot \pi z \right]_{z=1/4} \;\; n \; \; {\rm even}$$

Hidden Message

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For any declarations, you are free to ask.

[Tolaso J Kos]

Actually there is no need for polygammas. In the step

$$\left ( 1+(-1)^n \right )(-1)^n n! \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^k}{\left ( 2k+1 \right )^{n+1}}$$

we can easily recognize the Beta Dirichlet function. Thus:

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{ 1+x^2 } \, {\rm d}x= \left\{\begin{matrix}
0& , &n \; {\rm odd} \\
2 n! \beta(n+1)&, & n \; {\rm even}
\end{matrix}\right.$$

Of course evaluating $\beta(n+1)$ returns us back to the polygamma values, thus the first closed form is much more preferable.

[Tolaso J Kos]

$2.\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log{x}}{(1+x^2)^m}\,{\rm{d}}x$

Let us begin with the following two known represantations of the Beta function:

$${\rm B}(x, y)= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{x-1}}{\left ( 1+t \right )^{x+y}}\, {\rm d}t = \frac{\Gamma (x)\Gamma (y)}{\Gamma \left ( x+y \right )}$$

Now, setting $t \mapsto t^2$ as well as $y \mapsto m -x$ we have that:

\begin{equation} {\rm B} \left ( x, m-x \right )= m \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{2x-1}}{\left ( 1+t^2 \right )^m}\, {\rm d}t \end{equation}

Now, differentiating $(1)$ with respect to $x$ once we have that:

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{2x-1} \log t }{\left ( 1+t^2 \right )^m}\, {\rm d}t = \frac{\Gamma (x)\Gamma(m-x) \bigg [ \psi^{(0)}(x)- \psi^{(0)}(m-x) \bigg ]}{m^2 \Gamma(m)}$$

Thus our required integral is equal to:

$$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log x}{\left ( 1+x^2 \right )^m}\, {\rm d}x ={\rm B}^{(1)} \left ( \frac{1}{2}, m- \frac{1}{2} \right ) = \frac{\Gamma \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right ) \Gamma \left ( m- \frac{1}{2} \right ) \bigg[ \psi^{(0)}\left ( \frac{1}{2}\right) - \psi^{(0)} \left ( m- \frac{1}{2} \right ) \bigg]}{m^2 \Gamma(m)}$$

[Tolaso J Kos]

$3.\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log^n{x}}{(1+x^2)^m}\,{\rm{d}}x$

As can be seen from the above solution ,

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{\left ( 1+x^2 \right )^m}\, {\rm d}x = {\rm B}^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{2}, m- \frac{1}{2} \right )$$

However, we hardly know anything about the high order derivatives of the Beta function. What is known however are the following recursive formulae:

• $$ \Gamma^{(n+1)} (1)= -\gamma \Gamma^{(n)} (1) +n ! \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{\left ( n-k \right )!} \zeta(k+1)\Gamma^{(n-k)} (1)$$
• $$\Gamma^{(n+1)}\left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )= -\left ( \gamma +2 \log 2 \right ) \Gamma^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right ) +n ! \sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{\left ( n-k \right )!} \left ( 2^{k+1}-1 \right )\zeta(k+1) \Gamma^{(n-k)}\left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )$$

The interested reader will undoubtely find more information in this paper.

So, the best we can do for the moment for the third integral is to leave it that way.

[Tolaso J Kos]

From the paper above we also get that if $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and

$$I(n)= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\left ( \log t \right )^n}{(1+t)\sqrt{t}} \, {\rm d}t $$

then:

$$I(n)= \left\{\begin{matrix}
0 &, &n \; \text{odd} \\
\displaystyle2\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} (-1)^k \binom{2n}{k} \Gamma^{(2n-k)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )\Gamma^{(k)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right ) + (-1)^n \binom{2n}{n}\left [ \Gamma^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right ) \right ]^2& , & n \; \text{even}
\end{matrix}\right. $$

[Riemann]

A relative post can be found here.

[Tolaso J Kos]

3.$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log^n{x}}{(1+x^2)^m}\,{\rm{d}}x$

It is nice to share ideas with people around the world just to realize that you are ignoring the obvious. All we need for this is Liebniz's General Rule thus the last integral boils down to:

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log^n x}{\left ( 1+x^2 \right )^m}\, {\rm d}x = {\rm B}^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{2}, m- \frac{1}{2} \right )= \frac{1}{m^2 \Gamma(m)}\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} \Gamma^{(k)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )\Gamma^{(n-k)} \left ( m- \frac{1}{2} \right )$$

Then we are using the reduction formula for $\Gamma^{(n)} \left( \frac{1}{2}\right)$ which I quoted above:

$$\Gamma^{(n+1)}\left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )= -\left ( \gamma +2 \log 2 \right ) \Gamma^{(n)} \left ( \frac{1}{2} \right ) +n ! \sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{(-1)^{k+1}}{\left ( n-k \right )!} \left ( 2^{k+1}-1 \right )\zeta(k+1) \Gamma^{(n-k)}\left ( \frac{1}{2} \right )$$