\(\int_{0}^{+\infty}{x^{-a}\sin{x}\,dx}\)
- Grigorios Kostakos
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\(\int_{0}^{+\infty}{x^{-a}\sin{x}\,dx}\)
For \(a\in(0,2)\) prove that \[\displaystyle\int_{0}^{+\infty}{\frac{\sin{x}}{x^a}\,dx}=\Gamma(1-a)\,\cos\big(\tfrac{\pi a}{2}\big)\,,\]
where \(\Gamma(z)\) is Gamma function.
P.S. I have a rather complicated proof for the case \(0<a<1\). So i seek, if it's possible, a more elegant proof.
where \(\Gamma(z)\) is Gamma function.
P.S. I have a rather complicated proof for the case \(0<a<1\). So i seek, if it's possible, a more elegant proof.
Grigorios Kostakos
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Re: \(\int_{0}^{+\infty}{x^{-a}\sin{x}\,dx}\)
Hello Grigoris,Grigorios Kostakos wrote:For \(a\in(0,2)\) prove that \[\displaystyle\int_{0}^{+\infty}{\frac{\sin{x}}{x^a}\,dx}=\Gamma(1-a)\,\cos\big(\tfrac{\pi a}{2}\big)\,,\]
where \(\Gamma(z)\) is Gamma function.
here is a solution. One can actually begin by the Mellin Transformation of the \( \sin \) function. So,
$$\begin{aligned}
\int_0^\infty x^{a-1}\sin(x)\,\mathrm{d}x
&=\frac1{2i}\left(\int_0^\infty x^{a-1}e^{ix}\,\mathrm{d}x-\int_0^\infty x^{a-1}e^{-ix}\,\mathrm{d}x\right)\\
&=\frac1{2i}\left(e^{ia\pi/2}\int_0^\infty x^{a-1}e^{-x}\,\mathrm{d}x-e^{-ia\pi/2}\int_0^\infty x^{a-1}e^{-x}\,\mathrm{d}x\right)\\
&=\sin\left(\frac{a\pi}{2}\right)\Gamma(a)
\end{aligned}$$
Setting \( a \mapsto 1-a \) we get that:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x^a}\, {\rm d}x = \Gamma(1-a)\sin \left ( \frac{(1-a)\pi}{2} \right )= \Gamma(1-a)\cos \left ( \frac{a\pi}{2} \right )$$
which is the desired formula.
P.S 1: The formula does not hold for \( a= 1\) since the LHS is \( \pi/2 \) and the RHS is not defined. Neverthess, the formula does hold true for all the other numbers. For example for \( a=3/2 \) we have that:
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin x}{x^{3/2}}\, {\rm d}x = \Gamma \left ( 1- \frac{3}{2} \right )\cos \frac{3\pi}{4}= - \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}\cdot \Gamma \left ( - \frac{1}{2} \right ) = \sqrt{2\pi}$$
which is true. Of course \( \Gamma (-z) \) is evaluated through the formula:
$$\Gamma(x)\Gamma(-x)= - \frac{\pi}{x \sin \pi x}$$
So the formula does hold true when \( a \in (0, 1) \cup (1, 2) \).
P.S 2: The changes of variables \( x\mapsto ix \) and \( x\mapsto-ix \) used in the second equation above, are justified because
$$\oint_{\gamma_k} z^{a-1}e^{-z}\,\mathrm{d}z=0 $$
where \( \gamma_1=[0,R]\cup Re^{i\frac\pi2[0,1]}\cup iR[1,0] \) and \( \gamma_2=[0,R]\cup Re^{-i\frac\pi2[0,1]}\cup-iR[1,0] \) contain no singularities.
Imagination is much more important than knowledge.
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